In "Egalitarian" thought Ephesians 5:21 is commonly appealed to as a "proof text" in dispute of "Complementarian" thought.
The Egalitarian argument runs along the lines of: "Eph 5:21 tells christians to 'and be subject to one another in the fear of Christ.' But this is the same word used when it tells wives to "be subject" to their husbands. Since "be subject to one another" means that the husband is also "subject" to the wife, Paul's later instruction specifically to the wives cannot indicate any sort of hierarchy in the marital relationship." However, as discussed previously, the instruction here given is the same as that given to servants toward their masters and citizens toward the ruling authorities - it is quite clear that this instruction does imply submission to authority.
So how are we to understand it? Did the apostle just contradict himself? If we believe these words to be True then we must answer no, for anything which contradicts itself CANNOT be true - this is a basic axiom of logic.
To answer this, we shall start by looking at a parallel imperative given in Phillipians 2:3 - "Do nothing from selfishness or empty conceit, but with humility of mind regard one another as more important than yourselves;" The word here used for "regard" is worth examining. The word is "&eta&gamma&epsilon&omicron&mu&alpha&iota" and it means to: lead, rule, go before, have authority over, deem, assess, judge. It is a word used of governors and princes (indeed as a noun this word refers specifically to a governing authority). So here it tells us that the authority we each have (over ourselves) is to be concerned with the wellbeing of another before ourselves. - It does not say "each one is more important than the other, that would indeed be contradictory. What it says is that we are to take consideration of the good of the other person as of first importance. Before regard for ourselves, and what is that? Selfless love, &alpha&gamma&alpha&pi&alpha&omega - "agape." This should not be strange to us, this concept is stamped on every page of the New Testament and indeed the Scriptures. Ultimate love is self-sacrificing, it takes heed of the good of the other before one's own preference and seeks the highest good of all. So in this light the command to "submit to one another" makes perfect sense.
But now we move on to the instruction which Paul gives to wives and husbands and note that the apostle makes a distinction in the command given. Specifically Paul tells the wife to "be subject to the husband" but does not tell the husband to "be subject to the wife." Since the first passage was made clear by observing that the governing principle in christian relationship is "agape" love we shall seek the same sort of understanding of the marital relationship. And as we do so it becomes apparent that there is another sort of love operative here - "eros" (&epsilon&rho&omega&sigma). The presence of this type of love is distinctive of the marriage relationship versus other christian relationships. And if we recognize that this sort of love is between two inequivalent people then the hierarchical nature of the marital relationship instructed by Paul becomes evident.
"Agape" is between two christians, and as christians these people are in that sense 'equivalent.' However, even when two people are christians, this is often not the only relationship which exists between them; they may also be parent/child (Col 3:20-21), master/slave (Col 3:22-4:1), etc. or as in this case husband/wife. And in each case the apostle acknowledges that these relationships are not symmetric. And we see that in the marital relationship - when there is "Eros" that this leads to the specific instruction of the wife to submit to the husband AND the husband to take responsibility over this to exercise a sacrificial love to care for his wife.
So we see that the apostle's instruction in Ephesians 5:21 is not at odds with his particular instruction of the wife to submit to the husband (e.g. Eph 5:22).
While this certainly refutes the standard objection posed by Egalitarian thought based on this passage, let us not lose sight of the positive understanding which we should take away from this. The operation of eros within the marital relationship leads to an natural and God-made asymmetry of the relationship; but, the love of Christ - agape - is of FIRST IMPORTANCE. When you are married you are FIRST a christian, then a spouse. Just as in any other aspect of life; Christ is to be central and our other actions a corollary of this most fundamental truth. It is an issue of first and second things. Submission is enjoined within marriage, true; but if this interferes with christian interaction then you have done it wrong. And you will lose not only the good of the christian interaction but will destroy the good of submission in the the marital interaction. And when this plays out is it any wonder that so many people question the apostle's instructions.
(*note: This is not meant to be a discussion on the full meaning of Ephesians 5 and Paul's instructions on 'gender roles' per se: those who wish to know more of my thoughts on the matter are welcomed to peruse other things I have written on the matter here. This is meant solely as an answer to a single common question encountered when discussing the idea of "submission" found in the Bible.)
Anonymous
May 26 2010, 18:06:49 UTC 1 year ago
53190
“The presence of this type of love (eros) is distinctive of the marriage relationship versus other christian relationships. And if we recognize that this sort of love is between two *inequivalent* people then the hierarchical nature of the marital relationship instructed by Paul becomes evident.”First, how are you defining "inequivalent"?
Second, specifically, how does Paul forthrightly instruct that there is a hierarchical nature in the martial relationship?
Third, I think I understand what you are saying....that "eros" love is what qualifies the husband-wife relationship for hierarchy because "eros" is unique to that relationship.
May 26 2010, 20:46:19 UTC 1 year ago
Re: 53190
To start: Concerning "inequivalent" - the next post I wrote deals some with the fundamental concept of "equal" in the abstract. You may find that interesting.In this case "inequivalent" means that two "objects" (people) are not the same in the sense that you cannot reverse the relational statement concerning them and have it hold true (mathematically we would say that the relationship between them is not transitive).
In the marital relationship the husband is not the wife and the wife is not the husband - these two people are inequivalent upon interchange. And the instructions given to the wife and the husband are distinct in Scripture. In contrast to say that the husband and wife are both christians is an equivalent relationship (that is we could just as well say that the wife and the husband are both christians).
On the second question - Paul instructs submission in the marriage relationship on the part of the wife but does not on the part of the husband. More details of this exposition are found in the post previous to this - http://nuallan.livejournal.com/52878.ht
Thirdly - Yes, 'eros' sets the husband-wife relationship apart from other christian-christian relationships. All christian-christian relationships should be characterized by "&alpha&gamma&alpha&pi&epsilon" love, but only the husband-wife relationship should be characterized by &epsilon&rho&omicron&sigma ('eros') love.
Anonymous
May 31 2010, 14:58:07 UTC 1 year ago
Re: 53190
On being inequivalent:Your examples denote a difference of rank and/or authority.
Would you be comfortable saying something like this?
"Men and women both bear the image of God. Men and women alike are able to participate in the divine nature (1 Pet 1:4). In the church and in a marriage relationship, God wants women to assume an inferior position of lesser rank with less authority than men."
June 1 2010, 15:48:30 UTC 1 year ago
Re: 53190
Actually I would be quite uncomfortable saying something like that. To begin the english word "inferior" is replete with connotations which are wholly inappropriate to the scriptural view of the relationship between the genders. E.g. - 1 Cor 12:12-25.Certainly both men and women are made in the image of God, and are equally members of the body of Christ (equivalent under the interchange as "Christian"). Within the marital relationship the woman is placed under the authority, care and protection of the husband. She is the "glory of man" (1 Cor 11:7). Which is quite different from all english connotations of the word "inferior."
-I would make a related note that a son is not by nature "inferior to his father. But the father is still in direct authority over the childhood of the son and is to be in a position of honor over the life of the son throughout their lives.
(And the question of women's roles within the gathered church is a separate topic: the issue addressed here is within the marriage relationship.)
Anonymous
June 1 2010, 22:22:25 UTC 1 year ago
Re: 53190
I did assume that you would be uncomfortable with that statement. I wasn't sure what reason you would give, but I understand that you disapprove of the negative connotations of the English word "inferior". That makes sense to me, although the statement specified the position of the wife to be inferior, not the wife herself. A position that is placed under another is an inferior position. The body that is placed under the head is in an inferior position. The large blood vessel that descends from the heart is the inferior vena cava and the large blood vessels that ascends from the heart is the superior vena cava.But now I'm not sure why you are using 1 Cor 12:12-25 as a scriptural view of the relationship between genders. My reading of that passage is that there are different spiritual gifts given to build the church. This is followed by a remark reminding me that this discussion is about the wife's role in marriage, not women's role in the church. (Very true, and that was an unintentional error on my part.)
I know that you are rather busy with quite a bit of conversation about this topic, and it's fine with me if you are a bit too busy to continue on my tangent. I've always been interested in the working out of the idea the the husband is above the wife in that she is under his authority, but the husband (or the role of husband) is not superior to the wife (or role of wife).
June 2 2010, 20:14:37 UTC 1 year ago
Re: 53190
I quite understand your statements regarding the word "inferior" but denotative meaning is not the only thing that we english speakers think when we hear a word, and the connotations of "inferior" are all wrong to describe the relationship of the genders (or other relationships within the church). Just as Christ, though in submission to the Father, is never said to be 'inferior' to the Father - even so women. And to call them this, is I think dangerous for the connotations will creep into our thoughts that we might think less of women and more of men.But as it is highlighted out in 1 Cor 12:13 - the differences within the body of Christ are vital (and differences overall, not just of "spiritual gifts"). And this should not be taken to say they are at all 'lesser,' their submission gives us opportunity for glory - not in the worldly sense but that we might show in them the reflection of the sacrifice of God in our lives toward our wives - sacrifice has the most vital meaning when we do not "have" to do it.
Lewis, in the preface to The Great Divorce also reflects on the diversity of "good" noting that "good, as it ripens, becomes continually more different not only from evil but from other good." - If we, as limited beings, are to reflect God then surely by being different we can more fully, though I do not say totally, make reflection of the infinite divine.
Might I recommend that the following thoughts may be of some interest to you as you consider this matter: http://nuallan.livejournal.com/13501.ht
Anonymous
May 26 2010, 21:26:16 UTC 1 year ago
Agreed. A man is always and only a husband, and a wife is always and only a wife.
"And the instructions given to the wife and the husband are distinct in Scripture."
The instructions, as I understand, are addressing real people in real time with their own unique set of political and cultural circumstances. All the epistles are addressing real people including--the disenfranchised and marginalized--Christians, women, salves--and how they can best live out their faith within the current systems. The instructions, nonetheless, hold value for the modern reader. Given the overall teachings of scripture, I do not see that wives and husbands are given distinct instructions but that the same principles and virtues are incumbent upon both believing spouses. Do you see this differently, if so, how?
Does scripture teach that there is a specific behavior or disposition that only the husband is to have towards his wife that she should not have towards him? If so, what?
Does scripture teach there is a specific behavior or dispostion that only the wife is to have towards her husband that he should not have towards her? If so what?
If not, then what are the practical distinctives of your complementarian belief?
Anonymous
May 26 2010, 22:20:08 UTC 1 year ago
And this is the beauty of the gospel--they are co-heirs together with Christ, sons of God within the family of God, members of the Body of Christ, co-laborers in the Kingdom of God, vice-regents of God's creation...
I am just thinking, but it sure seems that in light of the Gospel, husbands and wives, to use your terms, have more equivalent relationships than the one inequivalent relationship by virtue of marriage? How does one relationship supercede the "equivalence" afforded by these various relationships?
June 1 2010, 16:07:02 UTC 1 year ago